As I’m sure all of you learned people know, the only reason that the Act of Union between Scotland and England took place was because Tudor Queen, Elizabeth I (1533-1603), left no heir to the English throne.
So the English Parliament took it upon themselves to ask King James VI of Scotland (1566-1625) to become King James I of Great Britain and Ireland in 1603.
This Scottish line was continued by his son, Charles I and then, after a brief, bloody and violent interlude courtesy of Ollie Cromwell, by Chaz 2.
My question is: In the event of Scotland achieving independence in the upcoming referendum, will it mean that the present Windsor monarchy, (which presides over the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland), have no legal basis for claiming the throne of England?
After all, the last “English” dynasty died out with the death of Elizabeth I (Welsh).
Maybe the Windsors should return to their ancestral home of Scotland…
At the very least, perhaps we should revert back to the last English dynasty before the Welsh Tudors took over the throne in 1485? Which would, of course, be the Plantagenet House of York which ended with the death of King Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth. Descendants of whom, are still alive today…